Does that change if said characteristic is devalued by the dominant culture as well? Can someone express an aversion to a characteristic, while not devaluing it? What happens if the person was at one time attracted to that characteristic, but they are actually experiencing a shift away from that, indeed further limiting their preferences?

The conclusion that I keep coming to is that by expressing a repulsion to said characteristic, you are devaluing it, and that relationships only becomes more problematic because of the influence from the dominant culture. I keep wanting to think that anytime one experiences a narrowing in their preferences, it is possibly (probably?) because of the inequality within their social influences.

I would really like more input on this though. I could use the advice.